Dear Professor,
I have a question regarding Problem Set 4, Question 7. When I calculate the Sharpe ratio for asset A using the provided numbers, I find it to be higher than that of the market. This suggests that asset A would offer a better risk-return trade-off than the market portfolio, even though it suppose to be efficient?
However, under the CAPM framework, an efficient asset should have the same Sharpe ratio as the market. This would imply that asset A's volatility should be slightly higher than the given 15% in order to align with the market's Sharpe ratio.
Could you please clarify whether asset A is intended to be an efficient portfolio in this context, or if the discrepancy is meant to indicate that it does not lie exactly on the Capital Market Line?
Thank you very much for your help.