Good night,
I do not understand question 5 from Part III. Why do we consider that all the DM Variance is the Flex Value - Actual Value? This has already appeared in some exercises of the handbook, and I do not understand the relation.
In class, we show that the Total Variance of DM (just an example) = DM Price Variance + DM Usage Variance. However, in several exercises, we consider the Total Variance to be the Flex Value - Actual Value.
Thank you for the help,
Mariana